Is this sloppy reporting or are these researchers actually confused about senescent cells often having two nuclei? One of the known cause of cellular senescence is G-phase cell division cycle arrest, usually due to damage, which will result in a cell with two nuclei...
According to Wikipedia, it looks like G-phase is part of interphase. During interphase, the cell isn't actually in the process of dividing, right? Wouldn't it be more likely that a senescent cell would have two nuclei if there was an error during telophase, right before cytokinesis?
